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Practice Test 2 (50 questions)

Answer all 50, then check your score. Aim for 70% or higher.

1. OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard applies to pesticides:

Answer: B. OSHA HazCom (SDS, training) applies in many workplaces. The pesticide label governs use.

2. If a customer's child or pet enters a treated area before re-entry is allowed, you should:

Answer: A. Protect people and pets and follow label first aid guidance if needed.

3. Products in the lowest toxicity category (Category IV):

Answer: A. Category IV products aren't required to have a signal word. CAUTION may appear.

4. Pant legs should be worn ___ chemical-resistant boots.

Answer: D. Pant legs go over the boots so pesticide doesn't run down into them.

5. Which formulation is a finely ground, dry product applied without water and has high drift potential?

Answer: B. Dusts are very fine particles that drift easily and pose an inhalation risk.

6. Baits are formulations that:

Answer: A. Baits attract pests to eat them. Place them to keep children, pets, and wildlife from reaching them.

7. Before a pesticide application, checking the soil type and depth to groundwater helps you:

Answer: B. Site characteristics determine how likely pesticides are to reach groundwater.

8. The economic injury level is:

Answer: A. Below this level, control costs more than the damage it prevents. Action thresholds are set below it to act in time.

9. The main purpose of a pressure gauge on a sprayer is to:

Answer: A. Pressure affects nozzle output and droplet size, so an accurate gauge is essential.

10. Pesticides should never be stored in:

Answer: D. Transferring pesticides into food or drink containers causes many accidental poisonings, especially in children.

11. Which statement is appropriate when explaining pesticide risks to a homeowner?

Answer: D. Give accurate, label-based information. Avoid absolute safety claims.

12. Which section of the label describes hazards to fish, wildlife, pollinators, and water?

Answer: A. Environmental hazard statements explain risks to non-target organisms and resources and give precautions to reduce them.

13. A noncertified applicator's qualifying training for RUP use must have been completed within the last:

Answer: D. Under 40 CFR 171.201, the noncertified applicator must be trained within the last 12 months (or hold a qualifying credential, such as a current WPS handler training).

14. Air-induction (venturi) nozzles are used primarily to:

Answer: D. Air-induction nozzles reduce driftable fines.

15. Which is an example of unnecessary or ineffective pesticide use?

Answer: C. Using the wrong product, or treating with no pest present, wastes money and increases risk.

16. The Worker Protection Standard requires agricultural employers to provide pesticide safety training to workers:

Answer: C. Under the 2015 WPS revisions, workers and handlers must be trained annually.

17. Communication between a certified supervisor and a noncertified applicator must be:

Answer: A. Noncertified applicators need a way to reach the supervisor promptly.

18. A sticker adjuvant:

Answer: A. Stickers improve adhesion and rainfastness.

19. A wind blowing steadily away from a sensitive area at a moderate speed within label limits is generally:

Answer: C. Steady, moderate wind away from sensitive areas, within label limits, reduces drift risk compared with gusty winds, winds toward sensitive sites, or inversion calm.

20. A label rate is 1 fl oz per 1,000 sq ft. What is the equivalent rate per acre?

Answer: A. 43,560 / 1,000 = 43.56, so 43.56 fl oz per acre (about 1.36 quarts).

21. Insects with gradual metamorphosis have which immature stage?

Answer: D. Gradual (simple) metamorphosis goes egg, nymph, adult, and nymphs often resemble the adults.

22. When pesticide is spilled on a person's skin and clothing, the FIRST steps are:

Answer: D. Quick removal and washing reduce absorption. Then follow label first aid and seek medical help if needed.

23. Eating, drinking, or smoking while handling pesticides:

Answer: D. Hand-to-mouth contact is a common route of oral exposure.

24. Which pesticide property most increases leaching potential?

Answer: D. Soluble, weakly adsorbed, persistent pesticides move with water through the soil.

25. A pesticide with an oral LD50 of 10 mg/kg compared with one of 2,000 mg/kg is:

Answer: B. The LOWER the LD50, the MORE toxic the product.

26. The "three Cs" of spill response are:

Answer: C. Control the source, contain the spill, then clean it up, with required reporting.

27. Drift from a herbicide application onto a neighbor's garden is:

Answer: A. Applicators are responsible for keeping pesticides on target. Drift damage can bring enforcement and liability.

28. A pre-emergence herbicide is applied:

Answer: C. Pre-emergence products form a barrier or zone that controls germinating weeds.

29. Violations of FIFRA can result in:

Answer: A. FIFRA provides civil and criminal penalties for violations.

30. Some labels require an applicator to notify certain parties (for example, beekeepers or a state agency) before applying. This is:

Answer: C. Product-specific notification requirements on labeling are mandatory for that use.

31. If a label lists a specific respirator type, the applicator should:

Answer: D. Use the respirator type the label specifies, fit-tested and maintained as required.

32. A field measures 660 feet by 330 feet. How many acres is it?

Answer: C. 660 x 330 = 217,800 sq ft. 217,800 / 43,560 = 5 acres.

33. Sensitive areas that call for extra care during application include:

Answer: C. Sensitive areas need extra planning, buffers, and label compliance.

34. Storage and disposal statements on the label:

Answer: B. Storage and disposal directions are part of the labeling.

35. A "broad-spectrum" insecticide:

Answer: A. Broad-spectrum products affect many species, including natural enemies and pollinators.

36. Prevention as a pest management goal means:

Answer: B. Prevention stops pests from becoming a problem, for example through exclusion, sanitation, and resistant varieties.

37. EPCRA (Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act) may require facilities that store certain pesticides above threshold amounts to:

Answer: D. EPCRA requires reporting of certain hazardous chemicals, including some pesticides, above thresholds.

38. When calibrating a granular spreader, you need to know:

Answer: A. Granular equipment output depends on gate setting, speed, and product. Calibrate with the product you will use.

39. Adsorption is:

Answer: D. Adsorption holds pesticides on soil particles, reducing movement but possibly prolonging persistence.

40. Applying a volatile herbicide on a very hot day increases the risk of:

Answer: B. Higher temperatures increase volatilization and vapor movement off target.

41. Applying a pesticide for a pest not listed on the label is:

Answer: C. FIFRA Section 2(ee) allows use against unlisted pests on a labeled site unless the label prohibits it, though some states restrict this.

42. For small containers (5 gallons or less), a triple rinse involves:

Answer: D. Triple rinsing, with rinsate added to the spray tank, removes most residue and lets you use the rinsate.

43. Which statement about equipment dedicated to herbicides is true?

Answer: C. Herbicide residue in a sprayer can injure sensitive plants on the next job.

44. Pesticide product registrations are periodically reviewed by the EPA through:

Answer: C. The EPA re-evaluates registered pesticides through registration review, generally every 15 years.

45. If you misplace a label, you should:

Answer: A. Never use a pesticide without its labeling. Get a copy from the manufacturer or a reliable label source.

46. Why should you avoid mixing more pesticide than you need?

Answer: D. Calculate carefully so you mix only what you need.

47. Natural controls that affect pest populations without human action include:

Answer: B. Climate, geography, predators, and resources naturally limit pest populations.

48. Soil incorporation of a pesticide means:

Answer: A. Incorporation can reduce volatilization and photodegradation and place the pesticide where it works.

49. A pesticide storage area should be:

Answer: D. Good storage prevents unauthorized access, deterioration, and contamination.

50. Pesticide application to animals (livestock) requires attention to:

Answer: D. Livestock labels specify species, dosage, and withdrawal intervals to prevent illegal residues.
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